Stern's presentation of this opinion implies his agreement:  that is, STERN DOES NOT BELIEVE THE NEW TESTAMENT WRITERS WERE INSPIRED..  By stating they drew upon their own resources, Stern is saying the writers of scripture just made it up. 

I have a big problem with that.

I won't fall into any ditch/argument that the men that penned the scriptures were given the Word by inspiration, then later when they found the time, wrote it down as best they could remember without inspiration.

 (Timothy 2:23 "But you-be-refusing the stupid and uneducated debates, knowing-absolutely that they-are-begetting fights.") 

Again in his Introduction, section VI "Reasons for certain renderings, 'Works of the law' and 'Under the Law'; Is the Torah legalistic?", Stern writes; "The Greek phrases erga nomou and upo nomon were COINED BY SHA'UL...."  (emphasis  is mine).

STOP. BEWARE: (Stern is fairly crafty in heaping of words, but think about it.)

There is a lot more that can be said against the JNT, but this is sufficient to show its deficiency.  Either you believe the New Testament is the inspired word of God, or you don't.

I believe the New Testament Greek is inspired.  The Greek is all we have, so to date, that is the language God has preserved his New Testament word in:

1Peter 1:25 (ASV 1901) "But the word of the Lord abideth for ever. And this is the word of OF GOOD TIDINGS which was preached unto you. "

* CONSISTENT TRANSLATION "But the saying of-Jehovah is-remaining into the age. But this is the saying NAMELY-THE GOOD-NEWS-having-been-brought with-reference-to YOU"

Why do I pack around 3-4 bible translations, Hebrew & Greek interlinears, and the Septuagint?  Because I don't trust MAN.  I trust YHVH, and by that trust is from hearing: Romans 10v17 So the trust (is) out-of hearing, but the hearing (is) through saying of-Messiah.  (or 'of-God'?)  What you hear is important.  Beware of those that change the words of Jesus/Yeshua/YHVH/God.

[*digression: CONSISTENT TRANSLATION - (one-word english for one word Greek, consistently the same english word for the same Greek word throughout the translation.  Mine is by R.H.Mount, it is not perfect, but functions well.

- note: this consistency can be done with Greek, but perhaps not so much with Hebrew.  Think about this mystery: In the Greek, there is LESS chance for misunderstanding.  For example; in Hebrew, I have been told a word or group of letters may be arranged and translated various ways.  Hence all the rabbis arguing in Talmud, etc.  Rabbinical thought is that they (opposing rabbis) can both be correct, because the Hebrew can support opposing views.  I suppose this could be in some sort of yin/yang view.  However, Yeshua scolded the Scribes and Pharisees for putting traditions above the law - they were interpreting the law to fit their needs (Matt 15:1-9).  But now the Father sends the advocate, the Holy Spirit, to teach all things (John 14:26).

The Greek does not appear flexible like the Hebrew.  You may have 30 forms of one Greek word, due to Greek grammar rules, with slightly different spellings, all meaning the same thing in English.   But taking parts of one word and adding to another doesn't "work" as in the Hebrew.  There are just a few Hebrew root words, so this is more easily allowable. Or so I've been told.

With this in mind, is it possible that the Greek was INTENTIONALLY used by YHVH to convey a singular meaning that could not be misconstrued?  Would this be a lot different than God putting the original "paleo" Hebrew into BABYLONIAN (gasp) Hebrew?  Think about that if you can.  Remember, God created 70 other languages at Babel.]